Information

2.7: Question Banks - Biology


Note: It is your responsibility to handle question banks and answer keys securely and appropriately to prevent them from being widely available and searchable via the Internet.

The machine-graded assessments in this course are organized by module and are aligned to specific learning outcomes. Waymaker assess students in three locations: Show What You Know (ungraded pretests at the beginning of each module), Self-Checks (short, ungraded practice tests), and end-of-module quizzes (graded).

Faculty can edit and delete any of the quiz questions and also add new ones. To learn more about editing the assessments in Waymaker, visit the Waymaker Faculty User Guide AFTER the course package has been imported to your learning management system (Blackboard, Canvas, etc.).

Optional Download

The Show What You Know and Self-Check questions are also available as a separate file that can be downloaded and imported into the assessment tool in your LMS. This format and extra step are needed ONLY if you want to make your own customized quiz, midterm, or final exam that combines quiz questions from multiple modules.

There are 14 question banks with a total of 620 multiple choice questions.

We provide quiz banks as QTI files, a standard format that allows you to import questions, build, and customize quizzes in most learning management systems (Canvas, Blackboard, etc.). These files cannot be opened outside of an LMS.

According to Lumen company policy, we do not provide quizzes in written (e.g. MS Word) form, in order to preserve the academic integrity of our quiz banks on behalf of everyone using our materials. We adopted this policy after observing how easy it is for quiz banks in written formats to find their way onto websites that promote academic cheating.

Click the name of your LMS to prompt the download of the file.

  • Canvas
  • Blackboard
  • D2L
  • Moodle

Once you’ve downloaded the file, visit the Quiz Imports page and click through to the directions for your LMS.


Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 2 Fractions and Decimals

Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
If (frac < 2 >< 3 >) of a number is 6, find the number.
Solution:
Let x be the required number.

Hence, the required number is 9.

Question 2.
Find the product of (frac < 6 >< 7 >) and 2(frac < 2 >< 3 >).
Solution:

Question 3.
Solve the following:

Solution:

Question 4.
Multiply 2.05 and 1.3.
Solution:

Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 5.
Solve the following:
(a) 3 – (frac < 2 >< 3 >)
(b) 4 + (frac < 2 >< 5 >)
Solution:

Question 6.
Arrange the following in ascending order:

Solution:

Question 7.
Find the products:
(i) 2.4 × 100
(ii) 0.24 × 1000
(iii) 0.024 × 10000
Solution:

Question 8.
Arnav spends 1(frac < 3 >< 4 >) hours in studies, 2(frac < 1 >< 2 >) hours in playing cricket. How much time did he spend in all?
Solution:
Time spent by Arnav in studies = 1(frac < 3 >< 4 >) hours
Time spent by Arnav in playing cricket = 2(frac < 1 >< 2 >) hours
Total time spent by Arnav = 1(frac < 3 >< 4 >) hours + 2(frac < 1 >< 2 >) hours

Question 9.
A square paper sheet has 10(frac < 2 >< 5 >) cm long side. Find its perimeter and area.
Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.
The product of two numbers is 2.0016. If one of them is 0.72, find the other number.
Solution:
Product of two numbers = 2.0016
One number = 0.72
Other number = 2.0016 ÷ 0.72

Hence, the required number = 2.78.

Question 12.
Reemu reads (frac < 1 >< 5 >)th pages of a book. If she reads further 40 pages, she would have read (frac < 7 >< 10 >)th
page of the book. How many pages are left to be read? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Let the total number of pages be x.
Number of pages read by Reemu = (frac < 1 >< 5 >)x
If she reads 40 more pages,
Total number of pages read by her = (frac < 1 >< 5 >)x + 40

Question 13.
(frac < 1 >< 8 >) of a number equals (frac < 2 >< 5 >) ÷ (frac < 1 >< 20 >). What is the number? (NCERT Exemplar)
Solution:
Let the number be x.

Hence, the required number = 64.

Question 14.
Simplify the following:

Solution:

Question 15.
The weight of an object on the Moon is (frac < 1 >< 6 >) its weight on the Earth. If an object weight 5(frac < 3 >< 5 >) kg on the Earth. How much would it weight on the Moon? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:

Question 16.
A picture hall has seats for 820 persons. At a recent film show, one usher guessed it was (frac < 3 >< 4 >) full, another that it was (frac < 2 >< 3 >) full. The ticket office reported 648 sales. Which usher (first or second) made the better guess? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Total number of seats = 820
Number of ticket sold = 648
For first usher = (frac < 3 >< 4 >) × 648 = 3 × 162 = 486
For second usher = (frac < 2 >< 3 >) × 648 = 2 × 216 = 432
Since 432 < 486
Hence, the first usher guessed better.


7 questions with the chair of NATO’s Parliamentary Assembly

WASHINGTON ― When U.S. Rep. Gerry Connolly was elected to chair the NATO Parliamentary Assembly in November, the new role harkened back to one of the congressman’s earliest jobs in Washington.

Though the Virginia Democrat is primarily known for chairing the House Subcommittee on Government Operations, which oversees cybersecurity, his early days in Washington were spent as a staffer on the Senate Committee on Foreign Relations from 1979 to 1989 — during the era when then-Sen. Joe Biden chaired the panel.

Defense News caught up with Connolly ahead of NATO’s June 14 summit in Brussels — its first summit since one of the alliance’s prime critics, U.S. President Donald Trump, left office.

This interview was edited for length and clarity.

After years of President Trump’s skepticism about NATO, how will the alliance turn the page, and what’s on the agenda for the June 14 meeting?

One item I believe must be on the agenda — and I’m going to continue to press forward — is the issue of commitment to our common democratic values. We have an alliance [that is] 70 years old that’s done a great deal about collective security and says it’s committed to democratic institutions, but there’s nothing in terms of our architecture that reflects that. I’m very pleased the experts looking at the NATO 2030 strategic concept embraced my recommendation to create a center for democratic resilience within NATO itself. Democracy is the reason for our existence and distinguishes us from the authoritarian counter-models being propounded. We need to have a center within NATO that elevates an issue on an equal part of collective security. Otherwise, we just become another military bloc.

How would the NATO 2030 concept put the alliance on a new footing with regard to China and Russia? How can it be made more effective?

It’s a whole new world of threats compared to what we were facing say 70 years ago, or even 25 years ago. Cyberthreats are now ubiquitous and very threatening. We have to develop strategies and technologies to counter them because they’re aimed not only at infrastructure, but democratic institutions themselves ― undermining elections, disinformation campaigns ― which are being propounded by malign actors with state support using a technology that is now — that didn’t exist 25 years ago — that is now ubiquitous. We have to counter that.

The rise of China: If you look at NATO documents, China isn’t even acknowledged as an entity until about four or five years ago. It’s astounding. Here’s a country that is poised to eclipse the United States, with the world’s largest gross domestic product, the largest navy in the world, the largest armed forces in the world, and it is pursuing hegemony.

It is encroaching on the territorial waters of its neighbors in the South China Sea. Its aggressive pursuit of its interests through the One Belt, One Road Initiative brings it to the borders of the NATO alliance itself. In the southern Mediterranean, the Balkans and the Arctic, China is extending its influence. It’s founded multilateral development banks. It’s aggressively pursuing clients in both Africa and South America. It’s even engaged in vaccination diplomacy.

We need to compete with China and recognize the potential threat because China is a one-party state that has done everything you can to suppress democratic instincts among its own people. We’re seeing aggressive moves about Taiwan, and Hong Kong is a set piece for what would happen to a democratic society under Chinese rule.

The NATO Parliamentary Assembly also needs to understand the new threats from an aggressive, assertive, grievance-filled Vladimir Putin, [Russia’s president]. Russia has troops and surrogates in three European countries, including Georgia and Ukraine, which are both NATO aspirants, and parts of Moldova. It has illegally annexed lands in Crimea, which we will never recognize ever, no matter how long that takes. It’s playing around in Azerbaijan, Armenia and Belarus, and it’s constantly encroaching on the airspace of the Baltic republics.

How important is it NATO make explicit that China is a strategic rival? With China as a major trading partner for some European countries, are there nations that are less inclined to use strong language with Beijing?

Of course there will be. But I will remind you that having an economic relationship with the country does not preclude a military or political rivalry. At the very height of the Cold War, many NATO members had fairly strong economic ties with the Soviet Union. That didn’t preclude Norway from being a staunch NATO member and deeply committed to the alliance’s goals. But if you look at NATO documents decades ago, China wasn’t even a thought, and that does not reflect reality. I’m not looking for a new Cold War with China, but President Xi Jinping is aggressively pursuing China’s interests at our expense. He wants to undermine Western liberal democracies and values, and we need to recognize that and prepare ourselves accordingly.

A contentious issue during the Trump years was the goal for NATO members to spend 2 percent of GDP on defense. What’s the willingness to revisit that target and modify it? Should Germany and others face continued pressure?

All of the NATO members took a pledge seven years ago in Wales to meet the target of 2 percent, and most of NATO still has not met it. And that was considered kind of a minimal, not a maximal goal to revitalize, replenish the NATO alliance, and to make sure that our allies have a fair share of the burden. And that remains absolutely a commitment and a goal, and one I believe the United States will continue to press.

One threat we need to face as democratic societies is backsliding among members and internal extremist threats to democracy itself. Those extremist elements exist in a large number of NATO nations, including the United States, as we witnessed Jan. 6 [during the Capitol riot].

How will the 2 percent target discussion change?

How will it be different than Trump? First of all, the context is radically different. You have this president of the United States, maybe the most Europeanist, trans-Atlantic advocate in the Oval Office who’s ever been there since the founding of NATO under President Harry S. Truman: Joe Biden sat for 36 years as a member of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. He was chairman of the European Affairs subcommittee, he interacted with NATO constantly and he is a passionate advocate of the alliance.

Contrast that was his predecessor, who was a critic, who raised questions about the viability of the alliance itself and then wanted to sort of pound people into submission rather than invite them to meet their commitments in the context of full American support. The contrast and context could not be more radically different. My hope is that [NATO members will] understand that by not meeting commitments, they can unwittingly contribute to disillusionment with the alliance here in the United States.

So it doesn’t hurt America’s credibility to say we’ve got problems? It says ‘We have problems just like you and we want to address them’?

I would put it a little bit differently. The reaction of NATO , when we experienced the insurrection on Jan. 6, was that if it can happen in the United States, it can happen to me too. We need to take the far-right, violent-extremist elements in our societies far more seriously. They’re embedded in military, in law enforcement, and some of them are embedded in legal professions and in academia. They are preaching the violent overthrow of democratic governments.

U.S. and NATO officials said they will provide standoff support for Afghanistan. You’ve expressed skepticism about the withdrawal there. What will that U.S. support look like?

Presumably there’d be some kind of ongoing American military advice and consultation, and likewise maybe NATO. Whether that can materially affect events on the ground remains to be seen. I agree with President Biden: We can’t forever be engaged in what is already the longest war in American history.

My concern is with what we leave behind. There are a lot of people who collaborated with us, who counted on us for security and protection. With our withdrawal, that security and protection is under dire threat, especially for women, but also interpreters, people in the government, elected officials — and we’ve already seen a pattern of assassination. They’re at enormous risk, and we have an obligation to them. I am concerned that our goal seems to be, preeminently, to extricate ourselves at last and I understand that, and I’m not unsympathetic with that, but we have obligations. I want to know how we’re going to meet those obligations.


Junior Engineer Civil Practice Paper 2 - Time 2 Hours

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 200 questions answered correctly

You have reached 0 of 0 points, ( 0 )

Categories

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10
  11. 11
  12. 12
  13. 13
  14. 14
  15. 15
  16. 16
  17. 17
  18. 18
  19. 19
  20. 20
  21. 21
  22. 22
  23. 23
  24. 24
  25. 25
  26. 26
  27. 27
  28. 28
  29. 29
  30. 30
  31. 31
  32. 32
  33. 33
  34. 34
  35. 35
  36. 36
  37. 37
  38. 38
  39. 39
  40. 40
  41. 41
  42. 42
  43. 43
  44. 44
  45. 45
  46. 46
  47. 47
  48. 48
  49. 49
  50. 50
  51. 51
  52. 52
  53. 53
  54. 54
  55. 55
  56. 56
  57. 57
  58. 58
  59. 59
  60. 60
  61. 61
  62. 62
  63. 63
  64. 64
  65. 65
  66. 66
  67. 67
  68. 68
  69. 69
  70. 70
  71. 71
  72. 72
  73. 73
  74. 74
  75. 75
  76. 76
  77. 77
  78. 78
  79. 79
  80. 80
  81. 81
  82. 82
  83. 83
  84. 84
  85. 85
  86. 86
  87. 87
  88. 88
  89. 89
  90. 90
  91. 91
  92. 92
  93. 93
  94. 94
  95. 95
  96. 96
  97. 97
  98. 98
  99. 99
  100. 100
  101. 101
  102. 102
  103. 103
  104. 104
  105. 105
  106. 106
  107. 107
  108. 108
  109. 109
  110. 110
  111. 111
  112. 112
  113. 113
  114. 114
  115. 115
  116. 116
  117. 117
  118. 118
  119. 119
  120. 120
  121. 121
  122. 122
  123. 123
  124. 124
  125. 125
  126. 126
  127. 127
  128. 128
  129. 129
  130. 130
  131. 131
  132. 132
  133. 133
  134. 134
  135. 135
  136. 136
  137. 137
  138. 138
  139. 139
  140. 140
  141. 141
  142. 142
  143. 143
  144. 144
  145. 145
  146. 146
  147. 147
  148. 148
  149. 149
  150. 150
  151. 151
  152. 152
  153. 153
  154. 154
  155. 155
  156. 156
  157. 157
  158. 158
  159. 159
  160. 160
  161. 161
  162. 162
  163. 163
  164. 164
  165. 165
  166. 166
  167. 167
  168. 168
  169. 169
  170. 170
  171. 171
  172. 172
  173. 173
  174. 174
  175. 175
  176. 176
  177. 177
  178. 178
  179. 179
  180. 180
  181. 181
  182. 182
  183. 183
  184. 184
  185. 185
  186. 186
  187. 187
  188. 188
  189. 189
  190. 190
  191. 191
  192. 192
  193. 193
  194. 194
  195. 195
  196. 196
  197. 197
  198. 198
  199. 199
  200. 200
1 . Question

In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code?

2 . Question

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

3 . Question

How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word?

4 . Question

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?

5 . Question

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which has as many letters berween them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?

6 . Question

In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: F @ N, NδR, H @ R
Conclusions : I. HδN, II. F#R

  • if only Conclusion I is true
  • if only Conclusion II is true
  • if either Conclusion I or II is true
  • if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
  • if both Conclusions I and II are true
7 . Question

In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: M # T, T @ K, K$ N
Condusions: I.M#N, II.KδM

  • if only Conclusion I is true
  • if only Conclusion II is true
  • if either Conclusion I or II is true
  • if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
  • if both Conclusions I and II are true
8 . Question

In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: T%H, H $ W
Conclusions: I. W#T, II. W%T

  • if only Conclusion I is true
  • if only Conclusion II is true
  • if either Conclusion I or II is true
  • if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
  • if both Conclusions I and II are true
9 . Question

In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: NδK, K#D, D%M
Conclusions: I. MδK, II. D δ N

  • if only Conclusion I is true
  • if only Conclusion II is true
  • if either Conclusion I or II is true
  • if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
  • if both Conclusions I and II are true
10 . Question

In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: J $ B, B % R, R δF
Conclusions: I.F#B, [email protected]

  • if only Conclusion I is true
  • if only Conclusion II is true
  • if either Conclusion I or II is true
  • if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
  • if both Conclusions I and II are true
11 . Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate right of C?

12 . Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is the only one person sitting between A and G?

13 . Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate left of D?

14 . Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is second to the left of C?

15 . Question

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

What is E s position with respect to D?

  • To the immediate right
  • To the immediate left
  • Third to the right
  • Second to the right
  • Third to the left
16 . Question

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

17 . Question

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

18 . Question

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

19 . Question

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

20 . Question

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

21 . Question

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Read the following information carefully, and answer the questions which follow : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H study in different standards viz. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th. All of them are seated around a circular table facing the center C sits third to right of H" H studies in std. B' F sits second to left of E" E is not an immediate neighbor of C or H. The one who studies in std. 1 is an immediate neighbor of E. Three people sit between H and the student of std. 7. H, C and also their immediate neighbors do not study in std. 2. Only one person sits between, the student of std. 2 and G. Students of std. 3 and 4 are immediate neighbors of each other. C is neither in std. 4 nor in std. 3. Only one person sits between A and the student of std 5. A does not study in std. 2 or 3. B does not study in std 2.
Ques. Which of the following is true regarding F?


Test: Linear Programming - 2

Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses

all the points in the feasible region

only the corner points of the feasible region

intermediate points within the infeasible region

only the interior points in the feasible reg

In linear programming a basic feasible solution

satisfies constraints only

satisfies constraints and non-negativity restrictions

optimizes the objective function

A tie for leaving variables in simplex procedure implies

The steps followed for the development of linear programming model are
1. state of problem in the form of a linear programming model
2. determine the decision variables
3. write the objective function
4. develop inequations (or equations) for the constraints.
The correct order is


This is used to convert constraint in equation.

Thus s1 is the surplus variable.

Consider the following Linear Programming Problem (LPP):​

The LPP has a unique optimal solution

The LPP has multiple optimal solution

The linear programming is used for optimization problems which satisfy the following conditions:
1. Objective function expressed as a linear function of variables.
2. Resources are unlimited.
3. The decision variables are inter-related and non-negative.
Which of these statements is/are correct?


Question 1.
Due to uncontrolled excessive hunting, the population of tigers in a forest becomes zero. Discuss the long-term effect of this situation on the population of deer in that forest.
Answer:
In a forest ecosystem the food chain occurs like this:
Grass → Deer → Tiger
As a result of excessive hunting, the tiger population in a forest becomes zero. This will lead to an increase in the population of deer. Consequently, the amount of grass in the forest decreases. In long term, is such a situation exists it will be a decrease in deer population due to competition among deer for grass. Due to excessive grazing the forest may turn into a desert after a long time.

Question 2.
Why soil is rich in nutrients in the tropical rain forests?
Answer:
Soil in tropical rain forests is rich in minerals and humus because the high temperature and moisture are favourable for the decomposition of fallen leaves and dead organic matter by the decomposers.

Question 3.
Define wild life. Write its significance in the maintenance of the environment.
Answer:
The wild life refers to the naturally occurring species of animals and plants which are not domesticated or cultivated.

  • Wild life has links in food chains operating in nature. These food chains are extremely beneficial to us.
  • Wild life maintains a balance in nature. For example, snakes control rodent population which destroy our crops.
  • Wild life also performs the role of biological control. These help in the recycling of matter in nature.
  • Green plants purify air, they gives us oxygen also maintain atmospheric temperature.
  • Plants add water vapour by transpiration and influence rainfall.

Question 4.
How is diversity at all levels generally conserved?
Answer:
Diversity is recognised by gene pool, species and biotic community. The ecosystem changes due to the pollution, climate changes and exploitation etc. There is need to prevent further destruction or degradation of habitats. There are on site (in situ) and off site (ex situ) strategies of conservation. Protected areas like biosphere reserves should be maintained.

Question 5.
What are threatened species? Name their 3 types in order of the danger of extinction they face.
Answer:
Species likely to disappear sooner or later are threatened species. Their 3 types are:

  1. Endangered species: These species are facing danger of imminent extinction, due to abundance of predators, pathogen or pullulans, very few in number or reduction in habitat.
  2. Vulnerable species: Their abundant population is present but threatened to deplete in number due to some factors like DDT in bird population.
  3. Rare species: These are naturally present in small populations, they have risks from predators/pathogen or environmental factors.

Question 6.
What kind of threats to the biodiversity may lead to its loss?
Answer:
Some important factors that lead to extinction of species and consequent loss of biodiversity are:

  • habitat loss and fragmentation
  • introduction of non-native species
  • over exploitation
  • soil, water and atmospheric pollution
  • intensive agriculture
  • forestry.

Habitat loss is the primary reason because if habitat is destroyed, then species would be destroyed (e.g. burning of forest, cutting of trees etc.) Pollution may eliminate some species. Eutrophication in lakes reduces biodiversity. Introduction of exotic species hinder the development of natural species, e.g. exotic fish Nile perch, water hyacinth and Lantana camara.

Question 7.
What do you understand by conservation of wildlife? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
Wise use and preservation of natural resources is called ‘conservation of wild life. Its main objectives are:

  • To ensure utilization of species and ecosystems – All the endangered species of plants and animals should be preserved. National Parks and Sanctuaries should be set up for wildlife. Wildlife should be protected in zoological gardens.
  • Preservation of species diversity – If a particular species migrates from one area to another, arrangements should be made to set up that species in the other area.
  • Maintenance of life supporting systems – Unique ecosystem should be protected. National protection programmes should be linked with international programmes.

Question 8.
Give two main cases of extinction of species by human intervention.
Answer:
Two main causes of extinction of a species are:
(i) By destroying their natural habitat. Many wild areas are being converted to human settlements, harbour, dams, reservoirs, croplands, mining sites etc. Environmental pollution and deforestation also results in the destruction of habitat, e.g., Habitat of largest flying bird (California Condor) of today has been affected by human cleanliness. Minor disturbances in the routes of migratory animals also affect them, i.e., some dams are blocking spawning.

(ii) Indiscriminate killing of the organism. Due to some properties of particular organisms, e.g., Rhinoceros is hunted for its horn, snakes are killed because of their venom and skin Tigers, Lions, Leopards are killed on a large scale skin Tigers, Lions, Leopards are killed on a large scale because of their skin and demand of some plants because of its medicinal ornamental property.

Question 9.
Broadly classify the extinction process.
Answer:
Extinction of species – The extinction of species is a natural process. Species have disappeared and new ones have evolved to take their place over. There are three types of extinction processes:

  • Natural extinction – When there is change in environment conditions, certain species disappear and others, (which are more adapted to changed conditions) take their place. This loss of species that occurred in the geological past at a very slow rate is known as natural (background extinction.)
  • Mass extinction – There have been several periods in the earth’s geological history when large number of species became extinct due to catastrophes.
  • Anthropogenic extinction – More number of species is disappearing from the face of the earth due to human activities. Man-made mass extinction represents a very severe depletion of biodiversity.

World Conservation Monitoring Centre has recorded that 533 animal (mostly vertebrates) and 384 plant species (mostly flowering plants) have become extinct since the year 1600. The current rate of extinction is 1000 to 10000 times higher than the background rate of extinction.

Question 10.
Describe the role of wild life in modern agriculture.
Answer:
Many new improved varieties of crops and useful animals have been derived from their wild relatives by genetic modifications. The wild forms serve as a reserve gene pool which may be tapped for improving disease resistance, pest resistance, cold tolerance and drought tolerance etc.

Question 11.
Why there is legal lapse as far as wildlife conservation is concerned?
Answer:
The existing laws are adequate to protect our wildlife. The failure of enforcement of these laws of protection of wildlife is one of the reasons for the depletion and extinction of wildlife.

Question 12.
Write a note on extinction.
Answer:
Extinction is the disappearance of a species from earth when its last surviving member dies. It is of three types:

  • Natural extinction, is the slow replacement of existing species with better adapted species.
  • Mass extinction is extinction of large number of species due to catastrophe, for e.g. extinction of dinosaurs.
  • Anthropogenic extinction is extinction of species: due to human activities.

Question 13.
What are the main causes of extinction of species?
Answer:
The main causes of extinction of species are as follows:

  • Hunting for commercial purposes and as a sport.
  • Destruction of habitats due to deforestation, establishment of new human settlements, polluted water bodies, roads, dams building etc.
  • Exotic species produce ecological imbalance due to removal of biological control.
  • Pollution-environmental pollution has degraded many important habitats, resulting in decrease in life.
  • Deforestation reduces the area of free movement of wild animals and reduces their reproductive capacity.

Question 14.
List some special Wild Life Projects in India.
Answer:

  • Gir Lion sanctuary Project: It has started since 1972 by Gujarat and Central Government to save Asiatic Lion.
  • Project Tiger: This programme has started on 1, 1973 by Central Government.
  • Project Hangul: This project was launched by IUCN, WWF and Government of Jammu and Kashmir in 1970 for Kashmir Stag or hangul.
  • Himalayan Musk Deer Project: This a joint effort of Gujarat and Central Government to save Musk deer. It was started in 1972.
  • Crocodile Breeding Project: It was started in 1975 by Central Government and UNDP to save gharial and mugger.

Question 15.
What do you mean by conservation of biodiversity? What are its objectives?
Answer:
Conservation may be defined as a technique of deriving maximum advantage from the biosphere without in any may degrading it. Conservation of biodiversity has three main objectives:

  • To maintain essential ecological processes and life supporting systems like air, water and soil.
  • To preserve the diversity of species and the range of genetic material of world’s organisms.
  • To ensure a continuous use of species, and ecosystems which will support the rural communities and urban industries.

Question 16.
What is species richness? How is it related to species diversity?
Answer:
Species richness is the nuclear of species per unit area. With the increase in area, species richness also increases because of availability of natural resources. Number of individuals of different species will give an idea about evenness or equitability of species.

Species diversity is the product of species richness and species evenness.

Question 17.
What are the factors responsible for loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Various factors responsible for loss of biodiversity are natural, mass extinction and anthropogenic or due human activities. Human activities have accelerated extinction of species by hunting, destroying habitats, fragmentation, introduction of new species in ecosystem, environmental pollution, construction of buildings, highways, industries, over-exploitation of rare species and due to ignorance.

Question 18.
How can biodiversity be conserved?
Answer:
For conservation, main steps include, protection of wildlife in natural and artificial habitats, preference should be given to threatened species during conservation programmes, emphasis on preserving ecosystem rather than a single species, protection of critical habitats like breeding habitats, feeding habitat etc., stopping animal trade of rare species, making international agreements to protect the migratory animals, setting up of National parks and Sanctuaries to protect animals.

Combining national efforts with international effort and active public participation for various in their natural habitat. Biodiversity in not homogeneously distributed over time and space. It differs from place to place.

Question 19.
How do you define biodiversity? Explain its significance in the present context
Answer:
Biodiversity is the totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a region. Depending upon the environmental conditions and species tolerance, biodiversity differs from place to place.

Significance: Human race depends on biodiversity for food source, breeding improved varieties, drugs and medicines, for aesthetic and cultural values and for maintaining the ecological balance.

Human beings are destroying biologically rich and unique habitats for their own interests. Due to increasing population, consumption of resources and pollution human beings are destroying the delicate balance of biosphere, this is affecting biological diversity and causing extinction of species. Biodiversity loss is one of world’s most concerned crisis. It is essential to conserve biodiversity.

Question 20.
What is species diversity?
Answer:
SPecies are distinct units of diversity, each one is playing a unique role in the ecosystem. Species diversity is the variety of species within a region. It can be measured in terms of species richness, which is the number of species per unit area. So greater the species richness, greater is the species diversity. The number of species increases with the area of the site.

Question 21.
What is the major cause for atmospheric pollution in metro cities? How can this pollution be reduced?
Answer:
Automobiles are a major cause of atmospheric pollution in metro cities. The pollution can be reduced by proper maintenance of automobiles along with use of lead-free petrol or diesel.

Question 22.
Name the three divisions of diversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity may be divided into three types: genetic diversity, species diversity and community or ecological diversity. Genetic diversity is related to the variations of genes within a species. The variations may be present in same genes, in entire genes or in chromosomal structures. Species diversity is the variety of species within a region. It depends on species richness and species evenness. Species richness is the number of species per unit area.

Community or ecological or ecosystem diversity is the different types of habitats or ecosystems. It contains diverse number of niches, trophic levels and various ecological processes which support energy flow, food webs and nutrient recycling.

Fig.: Interrelationship in Biodiversity.

Question 23.
Write a short note on Ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
Ex-situ conservation – This approach of conservation of endangered species includes the protection of a group of typical ecosystem f by a network of protected areas. Artificial conditions for individuals of a species are maintained under human supervision. Cultivation of rare plants and rearing of threatened animals is done in botanical and zoological gardens and are preserved in seed banks (plants) or genetic banks (animals).

Question 24.
Explain in brief electrostatic precipitator.
Answer:
The electrostatic precipitator can remove 99 percent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant. The precipitator has electrode wires that are maintained of several thousand volts, which produce corona that releases electrons. These electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles. The velocity of air between the plates must be low enough be allow dust to fall. A scrubber inside the precipitator removes gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.

Question 25.
What laws should be enforced to protect ourselves from noise pollution?
Answer:
Stringent following of laws laid down in relation to noise like delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools, permissible sound-levels of crackers and of loudspeakers, timings after which loudspeakers cannot be played, etc. need to be enforced to protect oursevles from noise pollution.

Question 26.
What are the effects of discharge of sewage into a river?
Answer:
When sewage is discharged into a river, micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in the receiving water bodies consume a lot of oxygen, and thus, there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream from the point of sewage discharge. This cause mortality of fish and other aquatic creatures.

Question 27.
What are the effects of the presence of large amount of nutrients in water?
Answer:
Presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive growth of planktonic algae, called algal bloom which imparts a distant colour to the water bodies. Algal blooms cause deterioration of the water quality and fish mortality. Some algal bloom are also extremely toxic to human beings and animals.

Question 28.
Why are plants of water hyacinth called the world’s most problematic aquatic weed?
Answer:
Plants of water hyacinth are called the most problematic aquatic weed because these plant grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies, and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem of the water bodies.

Question 29.
What are the effect of disposal of sewage from homes and hospitals directly into water bodies?
Answer:
Sewage of homes and hospitals contain many undesirable pathogenic micro-organisms, and if disposed directly into water can causfe outbreak of serious diseases, such as, dysentery, typhoid, jaundice, cholera etc.

Question 30.
What are the components of water from industries like petroleum, paper manufacturing, metal extraction and processing and chemical manufacturing?
Answer:
Waste water of the above industries contain toxic substances and a variety of organic compounds.

Question 31.
What is cultural or accelerated eutrophication?
Answer:
Pollutants from man’s activities like effluent from industries and homes can radically accelerate the ageing process of water bodies. This phenomenon is called cultural or accelerated eutrophication.

Question 32.
What are sanitary landfills?
Answer:
Sanitary landfills are open pits. The wastes are dumped in a depression or trench after compaction, and covered with dirt every day.

Question 33.
What is reforestation?
Answer:
Reforestation is the process of restoring a forest that once existed but was removed at some point of time in the past. In a deforested area, reforestation may occur naturally. Reforestation can be speeded by planting trees with due to consideration to biodiversity that earlier existed in that area.

Question 34.
What are the effects of wastewater of thermal power plants if disposed directly into water bodies?
Answer:
Thermal wastewater if disposed directly into water bodies eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature, and may exchange the growth of plant and fish in extremely cold areas but, only after causing damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.

Question 35.
What are municipal solid wastes?
Answer:
Municipal solid wastes are waste from homes, offices, stores, schools, hospitals, etc. That are collected and disposed by the municipality. These wastes generally comprise paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, rubber, leather, textile, etc.

Question 36.
What steps should be taken by human beings to solve environment issues?
Answer:
All waste that is generated by us should be categorised into three types:

The biodegradable materials should be put into deep pits in the ground and be left for natural breakdown. Only the non-biodegradable waste should be disposed off. The need to reduce our garbage generation should be a prime goal.

Question 37.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
Organic farming is a cyclical, zero-waste procedure, where waste products from one process are cycled in as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilisation of resource and increases the efficiency of production.

Question 38.
What has led to the enchancement of ozone degradation? How?
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) has led to the degradation of the ozone layer. CFCs discharged in the lower part of atmosphere move upward and reach stratosphere. In stratosphere, UV rays acts on them releasing Cl atoms.

Cl degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen, with these atoms acting mearly as catalysts. Cl atoms are not consumed in the reaction. Thus CFCs are added to the stratosphere which have permanent and continuing affects on ozone levels.

Question 39.
What are the effects of waterlogging?
Answer:
Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads to waterlogging in the soil besides affecting the crops, waterlogging draws salt to the surface of the soil. The salt is then deposited as a thin crust on the land surface or starts collecting at the roots of the plants. This increased salt content is inimical to the growth of crops and is extremely damaging to agriculture.

Question 40.
How does deforestation occur?
Answer:
Deforestation occurs due to various human activities. These are as follows:

  • Conversion of forest to agricultural land so as to feed the growing human population.
  • Trees are used for timber, firewood, cattle ranching and for several other purposes.
  • Slash and burn agriculture also called Jhum cultivation in northeastern state of India, has also contributed to deforestation.

Question 41.
Write chromosomal abnormalities in Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Turner’s Syndrome.
Answer:
In Klinefelter’s syndrome are more sex chromosome present. In such syndrome the chromosomes are 47 (44A + xxy). This is trisomy condition.

In Turner’s syndrome there is one sex-chromosome is less. This is monosomy condition. The chromosomes are 45 (44A + xo). Such is sterile female.

Question 42.
What is polygenic trait?
Answer:
This is a condition in which one character is controlled by more an one pair genes. When a character is controlled by more than a pair of g genes then such inheritance is called polygenic inheritance. For example the 5 sun of human is controlled by more than two pair genes.

Question 43.
Name the technique used to separate DNA fragments in the laboratory.
Answer:
In laboratory the DNA fragments are separated by Agarose Gel electrophoresis.

Question 44.
Discuss about advantages of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Advantages of asexual reproduction are

  • Single parent is required
  • Genetically identical offsprings produced
  • Helps in dispersal of species
  • Rapid reproduction.

Question 45.
What is interferon?
Answer:
Interferon is secreted from microbes infected cell. Interferon enters into nearby cells and made resistance against microbes. After enterance into healthy cells promote proteins synthesis agaist microbes. It gives temporary immunity.

Question 46.
If in one strand of DNA the sequence of nitrogenous bast are as
5′-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATC-3′
Then what will be the sequence of nitrogenous bases in complementary strand in 5′ – 3′ direction?
Answer:
5-GATGCATGCATCGATGCAT.

Question 47.
How did Louis Pasteur discredited the theory of spontaneous generation?
Answer:
Louis Pasteur discredited the theory of spontaneous generation by not plugging the sterilized sugar solution. He observed the livings entered into sugar solution and reproduce. Thus he proved the new organism developed when microbes entered into sugar solution.


Junior Engineer Mechanical Practice Paper 2 - Time 2 Hours

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 200 questions answered correctly

You have reached 0 of 0 points, ( 0 )

Categories

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. 7
  8. 8
  9. 9
  10. 10
  11. 11
  12. 12
  13. 13
  14. 14
  15. 15
  16. 16
  17. 17
  18. 18
  19. 19
  20. 20
  21. 21
  22. 22
  23. 23
  24. 24
  25. 25
  26. 26
  27. 27
  28. 28
  29. 29
  30. 30
  31. 31
  32. 32
  33. 33
  34. 34
  35. 35
  36. 36
  37. 37
  38. 38
  39. 39
  40. 40
  41. 41
  42. 42
  43. 43
  44. 44
  45. 45
  46. 46
  47. 47
  48. 48
  49. 49
  50. 50
  51. 51
  52. 52
  53. 53
  54. 54
  55. 55
  56. 56
  57. 57
  58. 58
  59. 59
  60. 60
  61. 61
  62. 62
  63. 63
  64. 64
  65. 65
  66. 66
  67. 67
  68. 68
  69. 69
  70. 70
  71. 71
  72. 72
  73. 73
  74. 74
  75. 75
  76. 76
  77. 77
  78. 78
  79. 79
  80. 80
  81. 81
  82. 82
  83. 83
  84. 84
  85. 85
  86. 86
  87. 87
  88. 88
  89. 89
  90. 90
  91. 91
  92. 92
  93. 93
  94. 94
  95. 95
  96. 96
  97. 97
  98. 98
  99. 99
  100. 100
  101. 101
  102. 102
  103. 103
  104. 104
  105. 105
  106. 106
  107. 107
  108. 108
  109. 109
  110. 110
  111. 111
  112. 112
  113. 113
  114. 114
  115. 115
  116. 116
  117. 117
  118. 118
  119. 119
  120. 120
  121. 121
  122. 122
  123. 123
  124. 124
  125. 125
  126. 126
  127. 127
  128. 128
  129. 129
  130. 130
  131. 131
  132. 132
  133. 133
  134. 134
  135. 135
  136. 136
  137. 137
  138. 138
  139. 139
  140. 140
  141. 141
  142. 142
  143. 143
  144. 144
  145. 145
  146. 146
  147. 147
  148. 148
  149. 149
  150. 150
  151. 151
  152. 152
  153. 153
  154. 154
  155. 155
  156. 156
  157. 157
  158. 158
  159. 159
  160. 160
  161. 161
  162. 162
  163. 163
  164. 164
  165. 165
  166. 166
  167. 167
  168. 168
  169. 169
  170. 170
  171. 171
  172. 172
  173. 173
  174. 174
  175. 175
  176. 176
  177. 177
  178. 178
  179. 179
  180. 180
  181. 181
  182. 182
  183. 183
  184. 184
  185. 185
  186. 186
  187. 187
  188. 188
  189. 189
  190. 190
  191. 191
  192. 192
  193. 193
  194. 194
  195. 195
  196. 196
  197. 197
  198. 198
  199. 199
  200. 200
1 . Question

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Read the following information carefully, and answer the questions which follow : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H study in different standards viz. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th. All of them are seated around a circular table facing the center C sits third to right of H" H studies in std. B' F sits second to left of E" E is not an immediate neighbor of C or H. The one who studies in std. 1 is an immediate neighbour of E. Three people sit between H and the student of std. 7. H, C and also their immediate neighbours do not study in std. 2. Only one person sits between, the student of std. 2 and G. Students of std. 3 and 4 are immediate neighbours of each other. C is neither in std. 4 nor in std. 3. Only one person sits between A and the student of std 5. A does not study in std. 2 or 3. B does not study in std 2.


Watch the video: Notes for IB Biology Chapter (January 2022).